Single selection (Answers)

1. The Nervous System is not:

A. Mainly consists of neurons and glia; B. Is the dominant regulatory system; C. Can integrate different senses; D. Controls movement; E. Transmits message through electrical signals only. (E)

2. Neural activity typically does not involve:

A. Sensory receptor; B. Neural conduction; C. Synaptic transmission; D. Release exocrine fluid; E. Local current and action potential. (D)

3. The main functions of glial cells include:

A. Astrocytes form insulating myelin of neuronal processes; B. Schwann cells provide support, protection and nutrition to neurons; C. Astrocytes play the same role of local circuit neurons; D. Microglia are the main form of active immune defense in the CNS; E. Glial cells can generate action potentials. (D)

4. The functions of neurons do not include:

A. Sensing changes in the environment; B. Contraction; C. Axonal transportation; D. Integration of signals from different sources; E. Nutritional effect on their innervated tissues. (B)

5. Primary peripheral neurotransmitter includes:

A. Norepinephrine; B. Dopamine; C. Glucose; D. GABA; E. Neuropeptide Y. (A)

6. Features of nerve conduction include:

A. One-way conduction; B. Neurotransmitter release; C. Graded potential; D. Insulation; E. Sensitive to environmental changes. (D)

7. Differences between neurons and astrocytes are at:

A. Neurons can sense and transmit signals and astrocytes provide support, protection, and nutrition to neurons; B. Astrocytes but not neurons have the difference of dendrites and axons; C. Astrocytes can transmit signals over a long distance and neurons play local modulatory roles; D. Glia but not neurons can generate action potentials; E. Neurons but not astrocytes can divide and proliferate, and thus contribute to injury repair. (A)

8. Incorrect descriptions about synapses are:

A. Include presynaptic terminal, cleft and postsynaptic receptor; B. Sensitive to action potential; C. Can release neurotransmitter; D. Surrounded by microglial processes; E. Include both chemical and electrical types.(D)

9. Synaptic transmission usually does not require:

A. Arrival of local current in neural terminals; B. Calcium mobilization in the synaptic button; C. Releasing neurotransmitters; D. Activation of postsynaptic receptors; E. Ion current  at the postsynaptic membrane. (A)

10. The following process is not commonly involved in neuronal activity:

A. Receive information via axons; B. Neural conduction; C. Synaptic transmission; D. Release neurotransmitter from axon terminal; E. Release neurotransmitter from dendrites. (A)

11. Features of synaptic transmission do not include:

A: One-way conduction; B: Central delay; C: Insulation; D. Sensitive to environmental changes; E. Both chemical and electrical types. (C)

12. Noradrenergic function in the PNS is:

A. Activation of M receptors; B. Activating a receptors; C. Contraction of striated muscle; D. Activating sweat glands; E. Activating adrenal gland. (B)

13. Generation of EPSCs in the CNS requires:

A: Generator potential at axonal terminal; B: Calcium influx into postsynaptic site; C: Releasing glutamate; D: Activation of postsynaptic N receptors; E: Opening of Cl- channels. (C)

14. Incorrect description about reflex is:

A. Include conditioned and unconditioned reflex; B. Cortex is not directly involved in unconditioned reflex; C. Based on neural circuit; D. The center of conditioned reflex is at the brainstem; E. Both chemical and electrical synapses are involved in the reflex. (D)

15. Multiple synaptic reflex does not directly involve:

A. Single line connection; B. Divergent connection; C. Convergent connection; D. Chain or recurrent connection; E. Local astrocytes. (E)

16. Which one is not the feature of excitation and propagation in the CNS?

A. All-or-none transmission; B. Summation and occlusion; C. Changes in excitation rhythm and fatigability; D. After discharge and feedback; E. Localization and generalization. (A)

17. Correct description about reflex is:

A. Conditioned reflex is established at birth; B. Unconditioned reflex is learned; C. Stretch reflex is a conditioned reflex; D. Spinal reflex also receives supraspinal regulation; E. The center of conditioned reflex is not at the cortex.

18. Multiple synaptic reflex usually does not involve:

A. Facilitation; B. Depression; C. Presynaptic inhibition; D. Unconditioned spinal reflex; E. Recurrent neuronal circuit. (D)

19. Features of excitation and propagation in the CNS are:

A. Two-way conduction; B. Summation but not occlusion; C. No change in excitation rhythm; D. After discharge and feedback; E. Localization but not generalization. (D)

20. What do you call the conversion of various forms of energy into electrical activity by sensory receptors? 

A. Depolarization; B. Hyperpolarization; C. Frequency modulation; D. Somesthetic propagation; E. Transduction.(E)

21. Which receptors do not adapt at all or adapt slowly?

A. Tactile; B. Nociceptors; C. Phasic; D. Smell; E. Taste. (B)

22. Incorrect description about sensory projection is:

A. Mechanoreceptors sense tactile, touch, pressure, tickle and position senses; B. Include spinothalamic pathway and dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway; C. Involves specific but not nonspecific projection systems; D. Each side of the cortex receives sensory information from the opposite side of the body; E. Representative area of surface in the cortex are upside down with the head as an exception. (C)

23. During a constant stimulus, a decrease in the response is called: 
A. Coding; B. Adaptation; C. Transducer function; D. Fatigue; E. Adequate stimulus. (B)

24. Incorrect description of the projection system is:

A. Needs three order neurons in sensory pathway; B. Dorsal column-medial lemniscal system and lateral spinothalamic tract carry visceral sensations to the specific relay nuclei in the thalamus; C. Nonspecific projection nucleus is in the internal medullary lamina of the thalamus. D. Somatic sensory area I is located in the postcentral gyrus; E. Senses carried by trigeminal nerve reach the ventroposterior medial thalamic nucleus. (B)

25. Features of referred pain does not include:

A. Often originates from visceral organs; B. Perceived as injury coming from skin; C. A myocardial infarction can be sensed as ache in the left chest/arm; D. Mainly due to cut and burn; E. It can be explained by a convergence-projection theory. (D)

26.  An increase in firing rate of a sensory nerve usually manifests:

A. Cessation of the stimulus; B. Receptor adaptation; C. Increase in stimulating intensity; D. Increase in motor activity; E. Localization. (C)

27. Near reflex does not involves:

A. Blurring vision and activation of visual cortex; B. Ciliary muscle relaxation; C. Activation of parasympathetic component of the  occulomotor nerve; D. Suspensory ligaments relaxed; E. Medial rectus muscle contraction. (B)

28. To see near object, you do not need:

A. Refraction of light, photoreceptor and visual cortex; B. Convergence reflex; C. Near reflex of the pupil; D. Adjustment of the lens; E. Activation of hair cells in Organ of Corti. (E)

29. Incorrect statement about rod and cone systems are:

A. Cone cells are located mainly in fovea; B. Rods allow us to see in dark light; C. Cone system enables us to see fine detail and colors; D. Rod cells overnumber cone cells; E. In dark light, cones work well. (E)

30. In visual sensation, the following one is not true:

A. Most of the refractive power resides in the retina; B. Activity of ciliary muscle determines the curvature of lens; C. The fovea lies on the visual axis but not optic axis; D. Pupil constrictor and dilator receive innervations of parasympathetic and sympathetic nerves, respectively. E. Cones and rods are photosensitive. (A)

31. Near reflex does not directly involve:

A. Convergence; B. Accommodation of the lens; B. Pupillary constriction; D. Activation of oculomotor nerve; E. Activation of precentral gyrus. (E)

32. Generation of vision does not need:

A. Light activation of rods or cones; B. Decomposition of light sensitive pigments composed of opsin and11-cis-retinene inhibits rod and cone; C. Cones and rods can release glutamate to inhibit bipolar cells by activating metabolic receptor; D. Generation of action potential in ganglion cells; E. Activation of temporal lobe. (E)

33. The incorrect description is:

A. Cone or rod cells sense light of 100-300 nm; B. Hair cells sense sound of 20-20,000Hz; C. Olfactory sensory neurons detect odorants; D. Taste buds are sensitive to tastant; E. Smell and taste belong to the study of chemosensory system. (A)

34. Incorrect statements of the hearing system include:

A. Ear includes the outer, middle and inner portions; B. Outer ear can direct sound to the auditory canal; C. The middle ear can conduct vibrations into the inner ear; D. Cochlea has light-sensitive cone cells; E. Hair cells in the organ of Corti can convert sound into generator potential. (D)

35. Features of hearing do not include:

A. Sound collection and transduction; 2. Impedance matching by the tympanic membrane and ossicular chain; C. Wave propagation along basilar membrane; D. Analysis of sound signals by the temporal lobe; E. Energy conversion by semicircular canal. (E)

36. False statement of the sense of hearing is:

A. The ossicles conduct sound from the tympanic membrane through the middle ear to the cochlea; B. Contraction of the tensor tympani and stapedius muscles can attenuate sound; C. Sound vibrations enter the scala vestibuli from the faceplate of the stapes at the oval window; D. High-frequency resonance of the basilar membrane occurs near the base; E. The organ of Corti directly generates nerve impulses in response to vibration of the basilar membrane. (E)

37. Equilibrium sensation involves:

A. Convergence; B. Gustation; B. Rod cells; D. Activation of olfactory nerve; E. Activation of vestibular nucleus. (E)

38. Incorrect statement of specific sensations is:

A. Activation of olfactory epithelial cells by odorants; B. Output from mitral cells changes the activity of piriform cortex; C. Gustation is evoked by activation of taste buds; D. Wernicke area is associated with the feeling of salty; E. Occipital lobe is the higher center of vision. (D)

39. The incorrect description of spinal reflex is:

A. The final path is alpha-motor neuron; B. Including stretch reflex and tendon reflex; C. Involving nerve conduction and synaptic transmission; D. Tendon reflex is triggered by the activation of muscle spindle; E. Activation of tendon organ inhibits stretch reflex. (D)

40. Supraspinal regulation of motor functions does not involve:

A. Both facilitatory and inhibitory areas in the reticular structure of the brainstem; B. “Decerebrate rigidity” is due to increased stretch reflex; C. The center of tonic labyrinthine reflex is at the vestibular nucleus; D. Cortical motor area can inhibit but not initiate motor neuron activity; E. Basal ganglion participates in designating and editing of motor programs, which can also be done by the cerebellum.(D)

41. Features of cortical motor area do not include:

A. Including primary motor cortex, supplementary motor area and posterior parietal cortex; B. Having mutual interactions with basal ganglion; C. Cross-innervation of the body; D. Control muscles activity via corticospinal tract and corticobulbar tract; E. Postcentral gyrus controls voluntary activity.(E)

42. The false description of spinal reflex is:

A. Alpha-motor neuron can be activated or inhibited; B. In stretch reflex, stretched muscle contracts; C. Contractions of flexor and crossed extensor can be elicited by the same afferent nerve; D. Activation of tendon organ elicits muscle contraction; E. Involving sensory receptor, nerve conduction, synaptic transmission.(D)

43. Supraspinal regulation of motor functions does not involve:

A. The reticular structure of the brainstem has both facilitatory and inhibitory effects; B. “Decerebrate rigidity” is due to a reduction of the activity of inhibitory brain areas; C. Attitudinal reflex includes tonic labyrinthine reflex and tonic neck reflex; D. Cortical motor area can initiate voluntary movements; E. Fine motor activity does not require the participation of basal ganglion and the cerebellum.(E)

44. Primary motor cortex does not have the following features:

A. Cross innervation of the body in a reverse order; B. Corticospinal tract mainly decussates at the medulla; C. Face above the eyes receives bilateral innervation of the corticobulbar tract; D. Motor column is the basic unit of the motor cortex; E. Located in the postcentral gyrus.(E)

45. Which one is not the functional features of parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems?

A. Using reflex to control visceral activity; B. The former exits the CNS above and below the latter; C. Parasympathetic postganglionic neuron has no relation with intrinsic nervous system; D. Acetylcholine is present in preganglionic fiber of all autonomic nerves; D. Main targets are myocardial cells, smooth muscles and glands.(C)

46. Functions of hypothalamus in neural regulation of visceral activity and instinctive behavior do not include:

A. Playing a core role in integrative neural regulation of visceral activity; B. Through somatic nervous system; C. Related to its controlling temperature, diurnal rhythm, and hydromineral balance; D. Controls feeding, drinking and sexual activity; E. Regulated by cerebral cortex.(B)

47. Neural regulation of mood does not involve:

A. Mainly produced by brain reward and punishment systems; B. Results in activation of autonomic system; C. Passive emotion belongs to defense reaction or fight-flight reaction; D. Defense area is located in the ventromedial thalamus; E. Prefrontal cortex is closely related to the negative emotion.(E)

48. Functional features of parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems do not include:

A. Basic reflex center in the spinal cord and brainstem; B. Vagus is from the brainstem; C. Acetylcholine is present in postganglionic fiber of some sympathetic terminal; D. Myocardial cells, smooth muscles and glands receive their dual innervation; E. Autonomic ganglia express N2 cholinergic receptor.(E)

49. Functions of hypothalamus in neural regulation of visceral activity and instinctive behavior include:

A. Playing a minor role in integrative neural regulation of visceral activity; B. Mainly through somatic nervous system; C. Related to its controlling feeding, drinking, and neuroendocrine functions; D. Not regulated by other components in the limbic system; E. Increase stretch reflex.(C)

50. Neural regulation of mood is not related to:

A. Include both positive and negative aspects; B. Mainly results in activation of sympathetic system; C. Defense reaction or fight-flight reaction is mainly related to the hypothalamus; D. Defense causes strong endocrine response; E. Cerebellum is closely related to the negative emotion.(E)

51. EEG waveform and its functional implication are not associated with:

A. It reflects the state of wakefulness and sleep; B. It is evoked electrical activity of brain; C. Including α, β, θ and δ forms; D. The frequency has positive correlation with brain activity; E. Formation of α wave is due to the summation of synchronized postsynaptic potentials.(B)

52. Which one is not the neural mechanisms underlying sleep and awakening:

A. Awakening is related to the ascending reticular activating system (ARAS); B. Many neurotransmitters are involved in ARAS, particularly glutamate; C. Behavior arousal can be separated from electroencephalographic arousal; D. Ventrolateral preoptic area is related to non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep; E. Reticular structure in the rostral middle brain is an ascending inhibitory system.(E)

53. The higher functions of brain are not associated with:

A. Associative learning; B. Encoding, storing and extracting messages in the cerebrum; C. Memory is based on synaptic plasticity, protein and transmitter synthesis, and structural changes; D. There is laterality of cerebral dominance; E. Damage of Broca area of the dominant hemisphere causes sensory aphasia.(E)

54. About EEG waveform and its functional implication, which is not true:

A. Beta wave reflects active thinking; B. Stimulating ARAS can switch alpha wave into beta wave; C. θ and δ wave can also show in awake baby; D. High frequency is usually with high amplitude; E. Depending on postsynaptic potentials of many neurons in the thalamus and brain cortex.(D)

55. Neural mechanisms underlying sleep and awakening are not related to:

A. ARAS is located at the rostral end of midbrain reticular system; B. Ascending inhibitory system is from medulla reticular system; C. Light and melatonin are involved in sleep; D. Ventrolateral preoptic area (VLPO) is related to NREM sleep; E. Basic theory of sleep considers that sleep is not an active inhibitory process.(E)

56. The higher functions of brain are not associated with:

A. Associative learning is a conditioned reflex; B. Memory needs encoding, storing and extracting messages in the brainstem; C. Short term memory requires synaptic plasticity; D. Laterality of cerebral dominance is a genomic feature; E. Damage of Wernicke area of the dominant hemisphere causes sensory aphasia. (D)


Keys to Passing the Oral Exam of Physiologic course
Chapter 9 Functions of the Nervous System-Review question II



Chapter 9 Functions of the Nervous System-Review question I

2015 Foreign Student Course-Single choice questions with answers